MadVader said:
Interesting stuff there.
Maybe the dominant role of one gender emerged once the settled tribes developed the notion of individual property? Who owned the hut and the field?
There was an interesting tidbit about the Tuaregs. In the groups that lived in a traditional, nomadic way, the tents were owned by the women. Those that settled to farm had male ownership of the farm. Why is that?
There is quite a bit of variation in these sorts of customs and habits across forager, pastoralist and horticultural as well as true agricultural populations. Being able to own things, or even having lineage traced through female kin doesn't necessarily equate with 'egalitarian' relations between the sexes nor with equivalence in power or rights between males and females. Basically, even in societies where women "owned" stuff, they were often still bereft of much formal power and subject to things like polygyny, so property ownership wouldn't seem to be the explanation for how patriarchy and misogyny became so predominant. I don't know the gender studies literature so I could be ignorant if there are viable and widely accepted theories. However, what little I do know: most explanations seem to simply say "Misogyny" is the explanation for why Neolithic societies became misogynistic, with the implication that it is somehow a reflection on inherent male desire to oppress and exploit women.
There may be such an inherent desire for males (and females) to oppress or exploit others, but given the variation in the extent to which there is sex-based inequality--and especially the case that, the most ancient norm for human natural history may well have been relative equality if not even some degree of matriarchy--inherent individual drives do not seem to explain the evolution of misogyny during the Neolithic and into recent times. It would seem to me that the shift to misogynistic societies had to do with militarism and the intensification of inter-group competition in the areas where the first city-states emerged. This would mean that it is really a question for the archaeologists not so much the gender-studies folks per se.
My humble, non-archaeological opinion: there was variation in the factors that seem to be associated with increasing sedentism of communities, increasing reliance on and intensification of domestication, and all the changes that went along with that (status differentiation, permanent architecture, defensive architecture, innovations in tools and weapons, work role specialization, writing, etc.). But there is one factor that seems to be common across most or all of the 'cradles of civilization:' intensified competition over resources as a result of growing population densities, and in some cases growing scarcity of resources as a result of climate change or over use.
That leads me to suspect that intergroup competition leading to increased militarism was the main cause for the beginning of the transition to misogyny, and may well have been part of what caused it to evolve to extreme extents and remain entrenched for centuries. When your communities very survival depends on having a potent fighting force to fend off would be conquerors, perhaps a value system that proclaims men dominant and women subservient was somehow advantageous or perhaps even inevitable.
If this idea were true, it would make the 'recent' changes in the opening of combat roles to females all the more remarkable.