who gives you the authority to say which interpretation is "wrong" and which is "right". If i was to say "I'd like to have a fag" then who is to say that what i meant to say was that i need a cigarette or if i wanted a homosexual. The problem is you just need another absolute to define this. You can get all the evidence, history and information you want about the period of time etc etc...but at the end of the day there is no proof without an absolute, and no absolute without proof.
The one who ushered the statement knew full well what it meant, and has say over what was meant from that precise statment.
Written literature, especially in cases where the original writer is either dead or no longer accessable can be interpreted correctly via the above hermeneutic with reliability. You might miss a few small points here and there, but the grand overarching theme of what the person is writing and talking about can be understood, as well as many of the points in minutia. If this were not the case, we'd just have to hold a bonfire for all books that were penned from dead authors, since they would be of less value than toilet paper if they could not be understood at all.
The older a book is, the more you have to be careful when interpreting it. When you have a book penned by someone of a different culture, in a different time period, or in a different language, you need to be exceptionally careful, which is why you'll want to stay in the above literary interpretation parameters.
Oh, and out of interest JA. How, when and why did you become a Christian?
I'll see if I can dig that up. I think I answered in breif 6 months ago. If you have a specific question about the overview, I'll be glad to answer in private (just hoping that I can find that earlier post and save me some work. I have about 800 pages to read, 3 reports to write, and two interviews to conduct as well as two tests to study for by next Tuesday).
Edit: Search failed me. I may have been thinking of a PM, or may have forgotten the key words.
The quick and dirty version is what I'll give you. I was raised as an Atheist, and actually liked to make fun of Christians. I thought they were either sadly misled and had a loose grasp of reality or were deceived (or deceivers in some cases). I'd love to attack them on moral issues if I had the chance in High School (yea, I was a pretty nasty guy back then) or even personally sometimes. I was firmly convinced via experience and via science that there was no possibility at all that God could have ever existed and believed there was no need for him (specifically to explain where everything came from).. However, when I got into higher sciences, I found that there was the possibility that God existed. Via AP classes at my high school (Chemistry was basic, but Geology, Quantum Mechanics, Physics, Anatomy and Physiology) I began to think more about whether or not there was at least a possibility that God exists/existed. These classes didn't prove that there was a God, but just showed me some of the loopholes of my logic up to that present time. I actually had a brief flirtation with Buddhism (Therivada I believe, and I hope I spelled it right) before rejecting it as nonsensical.
I got busy for the next 1.5 years and occasionally would think on the subject or ask questions of others or read something along the lines of the possible existance of God. However, it wasn't until College that I really began exploring. In College, I reasoned that if there was a possibility of God's existance, I'd better figure out what (s)he was like and what (s)he wanted, or eliminate that possibility. If I could eliminate the possibility of God or at least the possibility of knowing God and what he/she wanted, I'd settle for that and let the matter rest for the duration of my life.
If God exists, then there were two possible types of God. The first would be the Deist philosophy that God doesn't interact with history, but is an outside observer. The second is that God interacts with history at certain points, and guides its outcome and shapes its path. The first would be difficult to prove (you'd basically have to do it via elimination of the pro-interaction candidates), so I started with #2.
Reasoning that God may have interacted with history at some point and sought to reveal himself, I figured I'd look at one of the main religions today that has also been around for quite a while. If God was powerful enough to intervene in history, he probably would have caused quite an impact that would've started one of these movements. These movements include Hinduism (Buddhism being an offshoot of Hinduism), Islam, and Christianity. One of these three would be the best candidates for possible evidence for the interaction of God within history. I rejected Hinduism, the oldest, after a little research due to the fact that the holy books have degraded to such a point over time that at least 70% of the original material has either been lost or replaced/changed from the original. It is pretty hard to look for God (in this case plural) interaction with history when the holy documents themselves have been so degraded. I next looked at Islam and Christianity, which are linked.
Islam was later than Christianity by several centuries, and made the assumption that the OT and NT of the Bible were corrupted. So I put Islam on the shelf and looked at Christianity for evidence of this corruption. Of course, I needed to start with the TaNaK (the Old Testament) and study it in order to see if it had been corrupted, and if Jesus really fulfilled the requirements of being the Messiah in the New Testament, or if the NT was just all one big lie but the OT had the real truth. To make a long story short, after two more years of study, I came to the conclusion that the OT and NT weren't corrupted from the originals and were reliable. The impact that this person Jesus made on the world was huge. The prophecies which predated Jesus were fulfilled. The archaeology and history in the Bible was accurate. The miscelaneous prophecies in the Old Testament were (mostly, except for the future ones) fulfilled, not with ambiguity, but with great precision. The fact that the Bible had been so well preserved and was so accurate floored me, but it was the prophecies which convinced me the book was not just a simple good book. As much as I tried to get around what happened 2000 years ago at the site of the ressurection, there just weren't any good theories to refute the more likely account of the ressurection of Jesus.
At that point, I was left with four options to explore over a summer (a busy summer filled with research), based on the expanded trichotomy of CS Lewis (another Athiest that "saw the light") -- namely, was Jesus a Liar, a Lunatic, or the Lord (with a 4th criterion- was he Legend?)? The liar and lunatic were easy to discard, so the last month or two centered around exploring whether he was a legend (either not real or his historicity has been stripped from him) or was really the Lord. Based on the evidence, Jesus wasn't a legend, so I was left with only one choice at that point-- would I accept Jesus as my personal Lord and savior, or reject him and continue to live life the way I thought was best? I chose the former.
That's the quick and dirty. If you have specific questions, you can PM them to me. Comments on any part are welcomed, though I might not get back in detail with you until next Wednesday (the last finals I have are Tuesday).
Jesus is also mentioned in the books of Judaism and Islam, with key differences from those of the New Testament. Would someone following this version of Christ no longer be Christian?
Jesus is only mentioned once in brief among contemporary Jewish literature (if you exclude the countless prophecies of him in the TaNaK, that is
). He is also mentioned in breif in several other pieces of contemporary literature outside of Judaism. Josephus's reference, however, is most likely apocryphal (as much as I'd like it to be genuine, I doubt it). Islam came 400 years after the events, and therefore shouldn't be considered a reliable witness unless you can prove that the OT and NT had been deliberately and greatly altered by that time and that the Quran had access to either historically reliable information on Jesus that the writers of the Gospels lacked, or was indeed inspired by Allah.
Both reject the divinity and messiahship (if that is a word) of Jesus, and therefore following either would mean you weren't a Christian.
Isn't it possible to accept Jesus as the messiah without believing (or at least entirely believing) the NT though? To take an example, if I (for some reason) rejected the testimony of Luke as reliable would I then no longer be Christian, despite the fact that I fully believe the rest of the texts?
It is impossible to reject the deity of Christ and be a Christian. However, under certain circumstances, you could indeed reject a portion of the scripture and still be a Christian. For instance, a group of early Christians (I don't remember which ones) rejected Revalations as authentic. They accepted all other books and were followers of Christ, but just rejected that book. Martin Luther himself called the book of James a "strawey" book since portions conflicted with his ideas on election (how you become saved). Unless you have a good reason to reject a portion, you shouldn't do it though. A passage that should be considered for rejection is the last section in Mark (I think after 16:9, but I'd have to check) since that wasn't in the oldest manuscripts. You can't just pick and choose what to believe out of preference or because you don't like something (M.L. didn't like James, but regarded it as scripture, though he never liked the book and rarely used it).
Archaeologically speaking it's possible to prove a modicum of veracity to any such tale though. It doesn't necessarily mean the claim is true though - we have found Troy, we know it was razed several times, but this doesn't necessarily mean the Iliad actually happened. We have evidence of the existence of Rome, but it doesn't therefore follow that the story of Romulus & Remus is true.
Archaeological evidence can only tell us that a place or person existed, however in most cases it won't prove whether certain events happened (although in certain cultures, one would expect to find references to involvement in such events in the orbituary). One could use the same argument to prove Superman or James Bond exists, since they both reference people, places and organisations which are real.
You're right. Archaeology, as I mentioned, is an evidence for the infalability of the Bible, not the proof. If, as earlier archaologists supposed, the Hittites didn't exist and Ninevah never existed, it would lead to great doubt on the veracity of the Bible. However, as archaology has shown, both these people and this place have now been found and are as the Bible describes (though references to Hittites are very limited).
As for germ theory, Hippocrates (or at least an author of the body of works which bears his name) ascribed disease to organisms in the 5th century BC. It wasn't exactly microbiology, though they correctly identified the cause of disease as being 'invisible organisms', as well as a variety of treatments (not all of which would be effective) designed to kill these organisms. An ancient Roman agricultural text mentions "invisible organisms" which breed in swamps as transmitters of disease (not 100% sure, but I think the author may have been Varro). We also know the Egyptians correctly identified the link between mosquito's and malaria, although they believed malaria to be a form of venom used by the mosquito rather than being bacteria (which is half correct I suppose).
Thanks. I'll do a little research over the Christmas Break when I have more time. I'm not familiar with Varro, but Hippocrates obviously rings a bell.
Technically, I don't think God himself ever claims omnipotence in the bible (aside from the whole "I built the bloody thing" approach, but this wouldn't necessarily mean omnipotence). It's not central as such, since one could argue that the omnipotence of God is either a human interpretation, or else only relevant from our own perspective (as beings within his creation).
There are references to his Omnipotence in the Bible, but I don't believe God ever comes out directly and says "I am all-powerful". If you, as a parent to kids, need to keep telling your kids that you are the one in control and have power, it means (most likely) that you aren't in power and the kids are out from your control.
There are direct Biblical passages which are very clear that God is all-powerful.
As to Utilitarianism, we may need to start a new topic. I will however futher reiterate that it is a flawed system. Under Utilitarianism, who is to decide what the greatest good for the many is? Does it really come down to simple public opinion on some issues?
My point was that utilitarianism basically just says to maximise happiness. If this isn't the ultimate goal of all such systems (religions too), then something's amiss in my view.
Epicureanism is similar to utilitarianism in some regards, but true epicurianism has more value than this system, in my opinion. Is maximum happiness the ultimate goal of all religions? I think that is a stretch. I would say a fringe benefit of many religions is happiness or joy, but that isn't the point. Clearly, some religions are completely happiness-driven. Most others involve rituals, practices, or deeds that are moderately unpleasant at the very least. For the Christian, we are called to "deny ourselves". That isn't pleasurable at all. For the Muslim, you are called to pray at certain times, go on certain pilgramiges, abstain from certain food, fast, and give to charity. Some of those may be ok, but most are really not pleasurable. Most major religions involve some element of self-sacrifice as either a requirement or a strong suggestion.