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I mean in completely abstract probability terms; it could refer to anything. For somebody to have a second marriage, they would have to have a first. That first marriage would have to fail for the second to even exist. So proportionally, is it even possible for second marriages to fail more often than first marriages?
 
Aaaah! A-HA! I get it.
In this case, we need to utilise a
And a ****ty one, too.
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jacobhinds said:
proportionally
Depends on what proportions you're looking at.
The diagram tells us that TFFuSSu, which is obvious. But what's the question?
If we're looking at the "success to all" ratio for first and second marriages, then Fu / TSu / T, so second marriages are, by definition from FS, more successful (or in the worse case scenario, just as successful as the first ones).
I'm pretty sure that's the wrong ratio though, and for the real one, we really need to sample real data.
The real ratio is probably Fu / F <=>? Su / S. The proportion of unsuccessful first marriages to all first marriages, compared to the ratio of unsuccessful second marriages to all second marriages. "Tried" to make the diagram display the possibility of Fu / F < Su / S - if 30% of all first marriages are unsuccessful, but 60% of all second marriages are unsuccessful, then second marriages are proportionally less successful than first ones, no? (Numbers pulled right out of my arse.)

Also I can't write "equals with question mark above it" and that's infuriating, because I love that symbol.
 
jacobhinds said:
I mean in completely abstract probability terms; it could refer to anything. For somebody to have a second marriage, they would have to have a first. That first marriage would have to fail for the second to even exist. So proportionally, is it even possible for second marriages to fail more often than first marriages?
It is possible for second marriages to fail proportionally more than first marriages, if we are talking about all marriages vs. second marriages. The divorce rate for first marriages (which is about 50/50 here) has no effect on the divorce rate of second marriages.

However, it's not possible for there to be a larger number of divorces with second marriages apposed to firsts, for obvious reasons.
 
She's roughly four thousand years old. The "Pharaoh" in her name refers to her original status as the twelfth female Pharaoh in Ancient Egypt's Upper-Middle Kingdom era. She had to cede power after being cursed to immortality by a rival's personal wizard. The Ancient Egyptian Upper-Middle Kingdom Constitution Article VII, Section 3 describes the qualifications for a ruler "... and they must be mortal, since the whole post-mortem mummification thing is critical to the office. No immortal beings may serve as Pharaoh..."

She's basically been hanging out since.
 
Feragorn said:
She's roughly four thousand years old. The "Pharaoh" in her name refers to her original status as the twelfth female Pharaoh in Ancient Egypt's Upper-Middle Kingdom era. She had to cede power after being cursed to immortality by a rival's personal wizard. The Ancient Egyptian Upper-Middle Kingdom Constitution Article VII, Section 3 describes the qualifications for a ruler "... and they must be mortal, since the whole post-mortem mummification thing is critical to the office. No immortal beings may serve as Pharaoh..."

She's basically been hanging out since.

And here I thought only other people got Internet Stalkers.

Ban IMO.
 
Hardly. I'm also 4000 years old and existed under your brutal slavery before the Exodus. Then I got kicked out of Jerusalem after the Romans destroyed the temple, and I've been hanging out ever since.
 
Feragorn said:
Hardly. I'm also 4000 years old and existed under your brutal slavery before the Exodus. Then I got kicked out of Jerusalem after the Romans destroyed the temple, and I've been hanging out ever since.
Jews are actually immortal shapeshifting lizards.

I ****ing knew it.
 
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